Valid PCCN Exam Q&A PDF PCCN Dump is Ready (Updated 502 Questions)
Exam Questions and Answers for PCCN Study Guide
The PCCN exam is a comprehensive test that requires a thorough understanding of progressive care nursing. PCCN exam consists of 125 multiple-choice questions and must be completed within three hours. Nurses who pass the PCCN exam demonstrate that they possess the knowledge and skills necessary to provide exceptional care to critically ill patients. Becoming PCCN certified is a significant achievement for nurses who work in progressive care units, and can lead to increased job opportunities, higher pay, and greater professional recognition.
NEW QUESTION # 146
A nurse is monitoring a client's chest tube drainage system. The following findings are not a cause of concern except:
- A. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal
- B. Continuous bubbling during inspiration and expiration in the water seal chamber
- C. The water in the water seal bottle moves up as the client inhales and moves down as the client exhales
- D. Gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Continuous bubbling during inspiration and expiration in the water seal indicates a possible air leak. The other findings are normal.
NEW QUESTION # 147
The specific antidote for cyanide poisoning is:
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Sodium bicarbonate
- C. Digibind
- D. Kelocyanor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Kelocyanor
Kelocyanor is the antidote for cyanide poisoning.
Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepines; sodium bicarbonate is given to neutralize tricyclic antidepressants or to antagonize their effects; Digibind is the antidote for digoxin.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 289.
NEW QUESTION # 148
If a patient with an aortic aneurysm is to be medically managed, follow up chest x-rays, CT scans, MRI scans, and/or ultrasounds will be needed how often?
- A. Annually
- B. At 3-month intervals
- C. At 6-month intervals
- D. At 6-week intervals
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: At 6-month intervals
If a patient with an aortic aneurysm is to be medically managed, follow up chest x-rays, CT scans, MRI scans, and/or ultrasounds will be needed at six-month intervals to monitor the status of the aneurysm.
The importance of these studies should be stressed during patient/family teaching.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 483.
NEW QUESTION # 149
All of the following statements related to the compensatory stage of shock are true except:
- A. During the compensatory stage of shock, angiotensin I, present in the blood, is converted to angiotensin II in the lungs
- B. During the compensatory stage of shock, hypovolemia and resultant hypotension lead to activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
- C. During the compensatory stage of shock, renal blood flow is reduced which activates hormonal response
- D. During the compensatory stage of shock, patients become restless and agitated due to respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: During the compensatory stage of shock, hypovolemia and resultant hypotension lead to activation of the parasympathetic nervous system.
During the compensatory stage of shock, hypovolemia and resultant hypotension lead to activation of the sympathetic nervous system (not the parasympathetic nervous system). The sympathetic nervous system initiates neural, hormonal and chemical compensatory mechanisms causing peripheral vasoconstriction and elevation of the blood pressure.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 236-237.
NEW QUESTION # 150
All of the following statements related to peritoneal dialysis are true except:
- A. During peritoneal dialysis, dialysate flows into the peritoneal cavity by gravity
- B. In peritoneal dialysis, diffusion and convection occur across the peritoneal membrane
- C. Peritoneal dialysis is contraindicated in patients with respiratory distress
- D. With an optimally functioning catheter, it takes approximately one hour for 2L of fluid to infuse
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: With an optimally functioning catheter, it takes approximately one hour for 2L of fluid to infuse Dialysate flows into the peritoneal cavity by gravity; it takes approximately 10 minutes for 2L of fluid to infuse. The dialysate remains in the cavity for a predetermined amount of time and then is drained.
During the "dwell time," diffusion and convection occur across the peritoneal membrane. Peritoneal dialysis is contraindicated in patients who have recently undergone abdominal surgery, in those with respiratory distress, abdominal infection, or bowel diseases.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 382-383.
NEW QUESTION # 151
All of the following statements are true related to acute respiratory distress syndrome except:
- A. Patients with acute respiratory distress are at increased risk of infection
- B. It is characterized by non-pulmonary cardiac edema caused by decreased alveolar capillary membrane permeability
- C. It affects both lungs
- D. The Berlin Definition categorizes the severity of acute respiratory distress syndrome
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is characterized by non-pulmonary cardiac edema caused by decreased alveolar capillary membrane permeability Acute respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by non-cardiac pulmonary edema caused by increased, rather than decreased, alveolar capillary membrane permeability.
The acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) process disrupts normal macrophage function and increases the risk of infection. The Berlin definition of ARDS labels it as "mild," "moderate," or "severe." Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 257-258.
NEW QUESTION # 152
Continuous quality improvement in caring practice includes:
- A. initiating, participating, and utilizing the results of research in clinical practice
- B. participating in quality review and continuing education
- C. maintaining accurate, legal, legible records
- D. providing education and encouraging the patient and family in self care
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Continuous quality improvement means participating in quality review and continuing professional development and education. The nurse should be well aware of the need for constant learning, evaluation, and reevaluation.
NEW QUESTION # 153
Which of the following statements is true related to encephalitis?
- A. The most common type of encephalitis seen in the United States is caused by West Nile virus
- B. Pending specialized testing of the cerebrospinal fluid, diagnosis is often presumed and empiric treatment initiated with intravenous vancomycin
- C. It is inflammation of the brain parenchyma
- D. Encephalitis caused by the herpes simplex virus is extremely rare
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: It is inflammation of the brain parenchyma
Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain parenchyma. There are many causes, including arboviruses such as West Nile, but the most common type seen in the United States is encephalitis due to the herpes simplex virus (HSV).
The most common cause of encephalitis is a viral infection and empirical treatment is most often initiated with an antiviral agent pending testing of the cerebrospinal fluid.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 318.
NEW QUESTION # 154
The Affordable Care Act (ACA) requires hospitals to report quality indicators, for example, the rate of hospital-acquired infections and ties these indicators to financial reimbursement. In this way, the ACA offers a legal manifestation of the ethical principle of:
- A. Beneficence
- B. Paternalism
- C. Justice
- D. Nonmaleficence
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Nonmaleficence
Nonmaleficence is the injunction to do no harm. Through actively working to prevent hospital-acquired infections, a nurse upholds the principle of nonmaleficence.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 194.
NEW QUESTION # 155
The plasma protein that becomes the fibrin clot is:
- A. Prothrombin
- B. Albumin
- C. Globulin
- D. Fibrinogen
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Fibrinogen
Fibrinogen is the plasma protein that becomes the fibrin clot. The fibrinogen level is tested during evaluation for bleeding disorders.
Prothrombin is converted into thrombin in the formation of a fibrin clot.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 326.
NEW QUESTION # 156
The Ethical principle that the patient has the right to make decisions about his or her own care is called as:
- A. Autonomy
- B. None of the above
- C. Informed consent
- D. Bioethics
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation: The Ethical principle that the patient has the right to make decisions about his or her own care is called as autonomy. Autonomy is the Ethical Principle that gives the patient the right to make decisions about his or her own care. Patient family or parents are the legal autonomy of making decision if the patient is not in the state of making decisions. Nurse must keep the patient and his family well informed about this power of autonomy.
NEW QUESTION # 157
Which of the following statements related to shock is true?
- A. Cardiogenic shock activates the parasympathetic nervous system; hypovolemic and distributive shock activate the sympathetic nervous system
- B. All three types of shock activate the sympathetic nervous system
- C. All three types of shock activate the parasympathetic nervous system
- D. Cardiogenic shock activates the sympathetic nervous system; hypovolemic and distributive shock activate the parasympathetic nervous system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Correct answer: All three types of shock activate the sympathetic nervous system Regardless of the underlying cause, cardiogenic, hypovolemic, and distributive shock all activate the sympathetic nervous system. This, in turn, sets in motion the neural, hormonal, and chemical compensatory mechanisms which occur as the body attempts to improve tissue perfusion.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 236.
NEW QUESTION # 158
In this type of aortic dissection, the intimal tear begins and is contained in the descending aorta:
- A. Type I
- B. Type II
- C. Type III
- D. Type IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Correct answer: Type III
In type I, the original intimal tear begins in the ascending aorta and the dissection extends to the descending aorta. In type II, the tear begins and is contained in the ascending aorta. In type III, the intimal tear begins and is contained in the descending aorta. There is no type IV aortic aneurysm dissection.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 481.
NEW QUESTION # 159
Which of the following explanations best describes the mechanism of hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Increased level of uric acid in the blood
- B. Increased level of bacteria in the blood
- C. Increased level of ammonia in the blood which crosses blood brain barrier and is absorbed in blood cells.
- D. Increase level of viral agents in the blood
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Increased level of ammonia in the blood which crosses blood brain barrier and is absorbed in blood cells best describes the mechanism of hepatic encephalopathy. Hepatic failure is a state in which the liver is no longer be able to perform normal function due to different factors. Hepato-renal syndrome and Hepatic encephalopathy are the parts of syndrome of hepatic failure. An increased level of ammonia is responsible for an altered level of consciousness, stupor or coma in hepatic encephalopathy.
NEW QUESTION # 160
An Ethical Principle that means healthcare workers should provide care in a manner that does not cause direct intentional harm to the patient is called:
- A. Bargaining
- B. Non-maleficence
- C. Beneficence
- D. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: An Ethical Principle that means healthcare workers should provide care in a manner that does not cause direct intentional harm to the patient is called Non-maleficence. It is an Ethical Principle that ensures that the healthcare workers do not cause intentional harm to the patients. In these the nurse should be careful in providing the best and actual good effect to the patient. Must avoid bad effects or atleast good effect must be more benefited then the bad effect.
NEW QUESTION # 161
Which of the following statements is true regarding the treatment of heart failure?
- A. As an initial management strategy for heart failure, current recommendations advocate micromanagement of hemodynamic variables with inotropic agents
- B. A serum creatinine level greater than 2.2 mg/dL is a contraindication to ACE inhibitor therapy
- C. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers are considered cornerstone therapy for heart failure
- D. A potassium level greater than 5.5 mEq/L is a contraindication to ACE inhibitor therapy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: A potassium level greater than 5.5 mEq/L is a contraindication to ACE inhibitor therapy Unless contraindicated or not tolerated, ACE inhibitor therapy is recommended in all heart failure patients with a left ventricular ejection fraction of less than 40%. Contraindications to ACE inhibitors include:
* Previous intolerance
* Potassium greater than 5.5 mEq/L
* Hypotension with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mm Hg
* Serum creatinine greater than 3.0 mg/dL
ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers are considered cornerstone therapy for heart failure. Several large clinical trials have demonstrated that traditional micromanagement of hemodynamic variables (such as cardiac index) with inotropic agents may worsen patient outcomes; this is not recommended as an initial management strategy.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 233.
NEW QUESTION # 162
Interventions to help prevent disagreement between staff and family perspectives about the type or priorities of family needs include all of the following except:
- A. Establishing methods to contact and communicate with the patient's family
- B. Identification of a family spokesman or contact person
- C. Providing information according to family needs
- D. Relying on nurses to fulfill all family needs
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Relying on nurses to fulfill all family needs
Families need support in maintaining their strength and having needs met to be able to function as a positive influence for the patient rather than having a negative impact. However, relying on nurses to fulfill all family needs while caring for patients creates tension and frustration. Hospital resources must also be utilized and the family can also be assessed for resources they have which can be maximized.
Interventions to help prevent disagreement between staff and family perspectives about the type or priorities of family needs include: Establishing methods to contact and communicate with the patient's family, identification of a family spokesman or contact person, and providing information according to family needs.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 29.
NEW QUESTION # 163
The FOUR score is a validated tool used in the assessment of neurological patients. The categories scored in this tool are:
- A. Eye response, pain response, verbal response, respirations
- B. Eyes, pain response, brain stem reflexes, respirations
- C. Eye response, verbal, motor, respiration
- D. Eyes, motor, brain stem reflexes, respirations
Answer: D
Explanation:
Correct answer: Eyes, motor, brain stem reflexes, respirations
The FOUR score assigns a score of 0 through 4 in each of the four categories and, because it includes respirations and brain stem reflexes, this tool allows for the identification of changes in patients who are comatose, non-verbal, or who have very limited responses.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 299-300.
NEW QUESTION # 164
A known diabetic and hypertensive dies suddenly. Before death, his vital signs, including respiratory rate, pulse and blood pressure, were varying markedly. Urgent CT brain scan was advised while patient was alive. Results arrived only after death report is received. What do you expect in CT brain scan?
- A. Infarct in cerebellum
- B. Infarct in brainstem
- C. Infarct in left hemisphere
- D. Infarct in right hemisphere
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation: Infarct in brainstem is expected in the CT brain scan. CT brain scan of known diabetic and hypertensive that dies suddenly, showing respiratory rate, pulse and blood pressure varying markedly just before death, will tell of Infarct in the brainstem. This is because all the respiratory and cardiac centers are located in the brainstem which controls these cardiac and respiratory functions.
NEW QUESTION # 165
Distributive shock is also known as:
- A. Relative hypovolemic shock
- B. Hypovolemic shock
- C. Cardiogenic shock
- D. Vascular shock
Answer: A
Explanation:
Correct answer: Relative hypovolemic shock
In distributive shock, the total volume of blood and the pumping function of the heart are normal, but the blood is not appropriately distributed throughout the vascular bed. For various reasons, including sepsis and anaphylaxis, massive vasodilation occurs, increasing the size of the vascular bed. In this enlarged bed, the normal volume of circulating blood can no longer fill the vascular space, causing a drop in blood pressure and inadequate tissue perfusion.
Reference:
Burns, Suzanne
M. AACN Essentials of Progressive Care Nursing, Fourth Edition. Pg 236.
NEW QUESTION # 166
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